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Chem_100 Practice Test Semester 1 Final

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A chemical can be defined as
a.
a toxic substance.
b.
an unnatural additive placed in food.
c.
any substance that has a definite composition.
d.
any substance that is not alive.
 

 2. 

The two most important properties of all matter are
a.
the ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge.
b.
taking up space and having mass.
c.
being brittle and hard.
d.
being malleable and ductile.
 

 3. 

An atom is
a.
the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.
b.
the smallest unit of a compound.
c.
always made of carbon.
d.
smaller than an electron.
 

 4. 

A measure of the quantity of matter is
a.
density.
c.
volume.
b.
weight.
d.
mass.
 

 5. 

Matter includes all of the following except
a.
air.
c.
smoke.
b.
light.
d.
water vapor.
 

 6. 

Which of the following is not a physical change?
a.
grinding
c.
boiling
b.
cutting
d.
burning
 

 7. 

Which of the following is not a chemical change?
a.
rusting
c.
melting
b.
igniting
d.
burning
 

 8. 

A state of matter in which a material has no definite shape but has a definite volume is the ____ state.
a.
gas
c.
plasma
b.
liquid
d.
solid
 

 9. 

Which part of the illustration below shows the particles in a heterogeneous mixture?

mc009-1.jpg
a.
a
c.
c
b.
b
d.
d
 

 10. 

The only pure substance listed below is
a.
bread dough.
c.
vitamin C (ascorbic acid).
b.
vinegar (5% acetic acid).
d.
seawater.
 

 11. 

A homogeneous mixture is also called
a.
chemically bonded.
c.
a solution.
b.
a compound.
d.
a solute.
 

 12. 

All of the following are steps in the scientific method except
a.
observing and recording data.
b.
forming a hypothesis.
c.
discarding data inconsistent with the hypothesis.
d.
developing a model based on experimental results.
 

 13. 

A statement that can be tested experimentally is a
a.
variable.
c.
generalization.
b.
model.
d.
hypothesis.
 

 14. 

A theory is accepted as the explanation of an observed phenomenon until
a.
one study contradicts the theory.
b.
repeated observations conflict with the theory.
c.
a new method is discovered.
d.
a leading scientist declares that it is invalid.
 

 15. 

All of the following are examples of units except
a.
mass.
c.
gram.
b.
kilometer.
d.
ounce.
 

 16. 

Which of these is not an SI base unit?
a.
kilogram
c.
liter
b.
second
d.
Kelvin
 

 17. 

The symbol mm represents
a.
micrometer.
c.
milliliter.
b.
millimeter.
d.
meter.
 

 18. 

Which of these symbols represents a unit of volume?
a.
mL
c.
mm
b.
mg
d.
cm
 

 19. 

The relationship between the mass m of a material, its volume V, and its density D is
a.
D = mV.
c.
D = m/V.
b.
D = V/m.
d.
D = m + v.
 

 20. 

Which of these statements about density is true?
a.
Larger objects are more dense.
b.
Density does not depend on temperature.
c.
Density is a physical property.
d.
The density of an object depends on the force of gravity.
 

 21. 

The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3. What is the mass of a solid piece of aluminum with a volume of 1.50 cm3?
a.
0.556 g
c.
4.05 g
b.
1.80 g
d.
4.20 g
 

 22. 

100 milliliters is equivalent to
a.
1 hectoliter.
c.
1 centiliter.
b.
1 microliter.
d.
1 deciliter.
 

 23. 

The number of grams equal to 0.5 kg is
a.
0.0005.
c.
500.
b.
0.005.
d.
5000.
 

 24. 

How many minutes are in 1 week?
a.
168 min
c.
10 080 min
b.
1440 min
d.
100 800 min
 

 25. 

If 1 inch equals 2.54 cm, how many centimeters equal 1 yard?
a.
0.0706 cm
c.
30.5 cm
b.
14.2 cm
d.
91.4 cm
 

 26. 

The measurement 0.035550 g rounded off to two significant figures would be
a.
0.03 g.
c.
0.036 g.
b.
0.35 g.
d.
3.5 ´ 102 g.
 

 27. 

When adding numbers, the sum should be rounded so that the final digit is in the same place as the
a.
rightmost digit of the numbers added.
b.
last digit in the longest number added.
c.
leftmost digit of the numbers added.
d.
leftmost digit of the shortest number added.
 

 28. 

How is the measurement 0.000 065 cm written in scientific notation?
a.
65 ´ 10–6 cm
c.
6.5 ´ 10–6 cm
b.
6.5 ´ 10–5 cm
d.
6.5 ´ 10–4 cm
 

 29. 

The measurement 0.020 L is the same as
a.
2.0 ´ 10–3 L.
c.
2.0 ´ 10–2 L.
b.
2.0 ´ 102 L.
d.
2.0 ´ 10–1 L.
 

 30. 

If each atom of element D has 3 mass units and each atom of element E has 5 mass units, a molecule composed of one atom each of D and E has
a.
2 mass units.
c.
15 mass units.
b.
8 mass units.
d.
35 mass units.
 

 31. 

According to the law of definite proportions, any two samples of KCl have
a.
the same mass.
c.
the same melting point.
b.
slightly different molecular structures.
d.
the same ratio of elements.
 

 32. 

According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is ____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a.
equal to
c.
less than
b.
greater than
d.
either greater than or less than
 

 33. 

Experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the
a.
proton.
c.
neutron.
b.
nucleus.
d.
electron.
 

 34. 

In Rutherford's experiments, alpha particles
a.
passed through a tube containing gas.
c.
collided with electrons.
b.
were used to bombard a cathode plate.
d.
were used to bombard thin metal foil.
 

 35. 

Because most particles fired at metal foil passed straight through, Rutherford concluded that
a.
atoms were mostly empty space.
c.
electrons formed the nucleus.
b.
atoms contained no charged particles.
d.
atoms were indivisible.
 

 36. 

A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a.
nuclide.
c.
electron.
b.
neutron.
d.
isotope.
 

 37. 

The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics except that it
a.
is positively charged.
b.
is very dense.
c.
contains nearly all of the atom's mass.
d.
contains nearly all of the atom's volume.
 

 38. 

The smallest unit of an element that can exist either alone or in combination with other such particles of the same or different elements is the
a.
electron.
c.
neutron.
b.
proton.
d.
atom.
 

 39. 

All isotopes of hydrogen contain
a.
one neutron.
c.
one proton.
b.
two electrons.
d.
two nuclei.
 

 40. 

As the mass number of an element’s isotopes of an element increases, the number of protons
a.
decreases.
b.
increases.
c.
remains the same.
d.
doubles each time the mass number increases.
 

 41. 

An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
a.
13.
c.
27.
b.
14.
d.
40.
 

 42. 

Because excited hydrogen atoms always produce the same line-emission spectrum, scientists concluded that hydrogen
a.
had no electrons.
b.
did not release photons.
c.
released photons of only certain energies.
d.
could only exist in the ground state.
 

 43. 

For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,
a.
energy must be released.
b.
energy must be absorbed.
c.
radiation must be emitted.
d.
the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.
 

 44. 

Bohr's theory helped explain why
a.
electrons have negative charge.
b.
most of the mass of the atom is in the nucleus.
c.
excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light.
d.
atoms combine to form molecules.
 

 45. 

The set of orbitals that are dumbbell shaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are called
a.
d orbitals.
c.
f orbitals.
b.
p orbitals.
d.
s orbitals.
 

 46. 

A spherical electron cloud surrounding an atomic nucleus would best represent
a.
an s orbital.
b.
a px orbital.
c.
a combination of px and py orbitals.
d.
a combination of an s and a px orbital.
 

 47. 

The major difference between a 1s orbital and a 2s orbital is that
a.
the 2s orbital can hold more electrons.
b.
the 2s orbital has a slightly different shape.
c.
the 2s orbital is at a higher energy level.
d.
the 1s orbital can have only one electron.
 

 48. 

The p orbitals are shaped like
a.
electrons.
c.
dumbbells.
b.
circles.
d.
spheres.
 

 49. 

The number of orbitals for the d sublevel is
a.
1.
c.
5.
b.
3.
d.
7.
 

 50. 

Which of the following lists atomic orbitals in the correct order they are filled according to the Aufbau principle?
a.
1s 2s 2p 3s 4s 3p 3d 4p 5s
b.
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s
c.
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p 3d 4d
d.
1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 5s
 

 51. 

The element with electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 is
a.
Mg (Z = 12).
c.
S (Z = 16).
b.
C (Z = 6).
d.
Si (Z = 14).
 

 52. 

The electron configuration for the carbon atom (C) is 1s2 2s2 2p2. The atomic number of carbon is
a.
3.
c.
11.
b.
6.
d.
12.
 

 53. 

What is the electron configuration for nitrogen, atomic number 7?
a.
1s2 2s2 2p3
b.
1s2 2s3 2p2
c.
1s2 2s3 2p1
d.
1s2 2s2 2p2 3s1
 

 54. 

Argon, krypton, and xenon are
a.
alkaline earth metals.
c.
actinides.
b.
noble gases.
d.
lanthanides.
 

 55. 

Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a.
atomic masses.
c.
numbers of neutrons.
b.
atomic numbers.
d.
properties.
 

 56. 

Elements to the right side of the periodic table (p-block elements) have properties most associated with
a.
gases.
c.
metals.
b.
nonmetals.
d.
metalloids.
 

 57. 

Elements in which the d-sublevel is being filled have the properties of
a.
metals.
c.
metalloids.
b.
nonmetals.
d.
gases.
 

 58. 

The group of soft, silvery, reactive metals, all of which have one electron in an s orbital, is known as the
a.
alkaline-earth metals.
c.
alkali metals.
b.
transition metals.
d.
metalloids.
 

 59. 

Compared to the alkali metals, the alkaline-earth metals
a.
are less reactive.
b.
have lower melting points.
c.
are less dense.
d.
combine more readily with nonmetals.
 

 60. 

When an electron is added to a neutral atom, a certain amount of energy is
a.
always absorbed.
b.
always released.
c.
either released or absorbed.
d.
transferred to the more electronegative element.
 

 61. 

Which represents a neutral atom acquiring an electron in a process where energy is released?
a.
A + e + energy ® A
b.
A + e ® A – energy
c.
A + e ® A + energy
d.
A + energy ® A + e
 

 62. 

The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
a.
electron affinity.
c.
electronegativity.
b.
electron energy.
d.
ionization energy.
 

 63. 

A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons from another atom in the compound is called
a.
electron affinity.
c.
electronegativity.
b.
electron configuration.
d.
ionization potential.
 

 64. 

The element that has the greatest electronegativity is
a.
oxygen.
c.
chlorine.
b.
sodium.
d.
fluorine.
 

 65. 

A positive ion is known as a(n)
a.
ionic radius.
c.
cation.
b.
valence electron.
d.
anion
 

 66. 

Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
a.
gradually decrease.
b.
gradually decrease, then sharply increase.
c.
gradually increase.
d.
gradually increase, then sharply decrease.
 

 67. 

A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms together is called a(n)
a.
dipole.
c.
chemical bond.
b.
Lewis structure.
d.
London force.
 

 68. 

Malleability and ductility are characteristic of substances with
a.
covalent bonds.
c.
Lewis structures.
b.
ionic bonds.
d.
metallic bonds.
 

 69. 

A chemical formula includes the symbols of the elements in the compound and subscripts that indicate
a.
atomic mass of each element.
b.
number of atoms or ions of each element that are combined in the compound.
c.
formula mass.
d.
charges on the elements or ions.
 

 70. 

How many atoms of fluorine are present in a molecule of carbon tetrafluoride, CF4?
a.
1
c.
4
b.
2
d.
5
 

 71. 

What is the formula for zinc fluoride?
a.
ZnF
c.
Zn2F
b.
ZnF2
d.
Zn2F3
 

 72. 

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?
a.
CaCl
c.
CaCl3
b.
Ca2Cl
d.
CaCl2
 

 73. 

What is the formula for the compound formed by lead(II) ions and chromate ions?
a.
PbCrO4
c.
Pb2(CrO4)3
b.
Pb2CrO4
d.
Pb(CrO4)2
 

 74. 

What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?
a.
AlSO4
c.
Al2(SO4)3
b.
Al2SO4
d.
Al(SO4)3
 

 75. 

What is the formula for barium hydroxide?
a.
BaOH
c.
Ba(OH)2
b.
BaOH2
d.
Ba(OH)
 

 76. 

Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2.
a.
nickel(II) chlorate
c.
nickel(II) chlorite
b.
nickel(II) chloride
d.
nickel(II) peroxide
 

 77. 

Name the compound Zn3(PO4)2.
a.
zinc potassium oxide
c.
zinc phosphate
b.
trizinc polyoxide
d.
zinc phosphite
 

 78. 

Name the compound KClO3.
a.
potassium chloride
c.
potassium chlorate
b.
potassium trioxychlorite
d.
hypochlorite
 

 79. 

Name the compound Fe(NO3)2.
a.
iron(II) nitrate
c.
iron(III) nitrate
b.
iron(II) nitrite
d.
iron(III) nitride
 



 
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